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2014 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Commerce, Paper II


01. There is acute shortage of electricity in some of the states in India. This
       reflects a problem in which type of business environment ?
    (A) Economic
    (B) Demographic
    (C) Politico-legal
    (D) Socio-cultural
02. Match the items given in List-I and List-II.
             List – I                                   List – II
    (a) Economic liberalisation      (i) IT-enabled services
    (b) Out sourcing                     (ii) SFIO
    (c) Corporate frauds              (iii) Macro economic stability
    (d) Second generation
          reforms                            (iv) Increased competition
    Indicate the correct combination :
    Codes :
          (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    (B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (C) (ii) (iii)(iv) (i)
    (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
03. Which of the following is true ?
    (A) A consumer court setup under the Consumer Protection Act,
          does not have the power to punish for its contempt.

    (B) Professional services are outside the purview of the CPA.
    (C) A consumer court cannot force a person indulging in misleading advertising
          to confess his quit.
    (D) None of the above.
04. Match the items/terms given in List-I with those given in and List-II.
               List – I                              List – II
    (a) BIS                                  (i) Print Media
    (b) CERC                             (ii) Minimum support price for agricultural
    (c) CACP                             (iii) Quality of manufactured products.
    (d) PCI                                 (iv) Comparative product testing.
    Indicate the correct answer :
    Codes :
            (a  ) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)  (iv)  (iii)  (ii)  (i)
    (B)   (i)   (ii)  (iii) (iv)
    (C)  (iii) (iv)  (ii)  (i)
    (D)  (ii)  (iii) (iv)  (i)
05. Which one among the following is not the salient feature of industrial
      policy since 1991 ?
    (A) Enormous expansion of the private sector.
    (B) Redefining the role of public sector.
    (C) Limited exposure of Indian industry to foreign competition.
    (D) Pruning of the list of items reserved for SSI units.
06. A, a partner in a firm, is drawing  500 regularly on the 16th of every
      month. He will have to pay interest at the given rate in a year on ` 6000 for
      the total period of
    (A) 5 months            (B) 6 months
    (C) 7 months            (D) 12 months
07. Subsequent expenditures that extend the useful life, improve the quality of
      output, or reduce operating costs of an existing asset beyond their
      originally estimated levels are
    (A) Capital expenditures
    (B) Revenue expenditures
    (C) Deferred Revenue expenditures
    (D) None of the above
08. Marginal-costing technique is useful for
    (A) Make or Buy decisions
    (B) Profit planning
    (C) Shut-down decisions
    (D) All of the above
09. Which one is not a feature ofbudgetary control ?
    (A) A tool for management control.
    (B) An instrument of delegation and authority.
    (C) An instrument for evaluating the overall performance.
    (D) A statement of budget and forecasts.
10. The Debt-Equity Ratio of a company is 2 : 1. In this relation, match the following :
               List – I                                    List – II
    (a) Issue of equity shares               1. No change on the ratio
    (b) Cash received from debtors     2. Reduce the ratio
    (c) Redemption of debentures        3. No change on the ratio
    (d) Purchased goods on credit       4. Reduce the ratio
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)   1   2   3   4
    (B)   2   3   4   1
    (C)   1   3   4   2
    (D)   2   4   1   3
11. Which one of the following does not explain the basic nature of Business
      economics ?
    (A) Behaviour of firms in theory and practice.
    (B) Distribution theories like rent, wages and interest along with the theory of profit.
    (C) Use of the tools of economic analysis in clarifying problems
          in organising and evaluating information and in comparing
          alternative courses of action.
    (D) Integration of economic theory with business practices for the
           purpose of facilitating decision making.
12. At a point of satiety for a commodity the marginal utility is
    (A) Negative
    (B) Positive
    (C) Zero
    (D) Highly positive
13. A rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve on all its points has
    (A) Equal slopes and equal point elasticities.
    (B) Unequal slopes and unequal point elasticities.
    (C) Unequal slopes and equal point elasticities.
    (D) Equal slopes and unequal point elasticities.
14. Assertion (A) : A perfectly competitive firm is not a price maker but is a price-taker.
      Reason (R) : The firm is interested in deciding the level of output only.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (C) (A) is false, while (R) is true.
    (D) (A) is true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
15. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II.
                List – I                            List – II
    (a) A market having high
         price elasticity.                     I. Skimming pricing
    (b) A market having high
          price in elasticity                 II. Differential pricing
    (c) A market having
         several segments differing
         prominently with regard to
         price elasticities of their
        demand.                               III. Penetrating pricing
    Codes :
             I      II    III
    (A)  (b),  (c) , (a)
    (B)  (a),  (b),  (c)
    (C)  (b),  (a),  (c)
    (D)  (a),  (c),  (b)
16. Which one of the following options deals with the process of making
      estimates, predictions and decisions ?
    (A) Descriptive statistics
    (B) Inferential statistics
    (C) Probability theory
    (D) None of the above
17. A hypothesis test is being performed for a process in which a Type-I error
      will be very costly, but a Type-II  error will be relatively inexpensive
      and unimportant. Which of the following would be the best choice
      for alpha (a) in this test ?
    (A) 0.10
    (B) 0.05
    (C) 0.01
    (D) 0.50
18. If the dependent variable increases as the independent variable increases in
      an estimating equation, the coefficient of correlation will be in the range
    (A) 0 to (–) 1
    (B) 0 to (–) 0
    (C) 0 to (–) 0.05
    (D) 0 to 1
19. Assertion (A) : When there is an evidence of a linear relationship between two
                              variables, it may not always mean an independent-dependent
                              relationship between the two variables.
      Reason (R) : The causal relationship between the two variables may
                          not imply a reasonable theoretical relationship between the two.
      Choose the right answer from the following statements :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
    (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
20. Assertion (A) : User interface is most critical task in DSS design
      Reason (R) : DSS is used by outside Customers frequently.
    (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
    (C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
21. Which of the following is not true about Matrix Organisation ?
    (A) It is relatively permanent.
    (B) Its project managers authority is distributed reasonably.
    (C) There is slow information processing.
    (D) Its project heads have to share resources with functional heads.
22. Consider the following leadership styles :
    1. Telling               2. Autocratic
    3. Selling               4. Motivating
    5. Participating      6. Delegating
    7. Charismatic
    Select the four styles of leadership explained by Hersey and Blauchard.
    (A) 1, 2, 6 and 7             (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
    (C) 1, 3, 5 and 6             (D) 4, 5, 6 and 7
23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A), and the
      other labelled as Reason (R).
      Assertion (A) : Classical organisations believed in the use of authority to achieve
      Reason (R) : Classical thinkers consider organisation is an open system.
    Codes :
    (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
    (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
24. Who has modified Maslow’s Hierarchical levels of needs and developed ERG model ?
    (A) Frederick Herzberg
    (B) David C. McClelland
    (C) Douglas McGregor
    (D) Clayton Alderfer
25. Taylor’s differential piece work plan provides that
    (A) All labourers should be assigned different amount of work.
    (B) All labourers should be put in different time-period.
    (C) Those who produce above standard should receive higher wages than those producing
           below standard.
    (D) Payment should be the same on a fixed standard.
26. Which one of the following stages of the marketing research process is most expensive ?
    (A) Data analysis
    (B) Data collection
    (C) Developing the research plan
    (D) Report writing
27. The people to adopt a new product first are called
    (A) Early adopters
    (B) First users
    (C) Initial adopters
    (D) Innovators
28. A concept in retailing that helps explain the emergence of new retailers is
      called the ______ hypothesis.
    (A) Product life cycle
    (B) Service assortment
    (C) Retail life cycle
    (D) ‘Wheel-of-retailing’
29. Manufacturers of cars and motor cycles typically seek_______ distribution.
    (A) selective
    (B) intensive
    (C) exclusive
    (D) restrictive
30. Which method of setting advertising budget is most scientific and logical ?
    (A) All-you-can afford method
    (B) Competitive parity method
    (C) Objective-and-task method
    (D) Percentage-of-sales method
31. Assertion (A) : Weighted average cost of capital should be used
                              as a hurdle rate for accepting or rejecting a capital budgeting
      Reason (R) : It is because by financing in the proportions specified and
                          accepting the   project, yielding more than the weighted average
                           required  return, the firm is able to increase the market price
                          of its stock.
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (C) (A) is true, while (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, while (R) is true.
32. A firm wants to know the Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) with the following
      information :
     Current level of sales : 6000 units Break-even point sales : 4000 units
      What would be the DOL ?
    (A) 1.50
    (B) 0.67
    (C) 3.00
    (D) None of the above
33. Assertion (A) : When two or more investment proposals are mutually exclusive,
                              ranking the proposals on the basis of IRR, NPV and PI methods
                              may give contradictory results.
      Reason (R) : The contradictory results in the ranking are due to differing dimensions
                           relating to the scale of investments, cash flow patterns and project lives.
    Indicate the correct answer :
    Codes :
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
    (B) (A) is true, but (R) is a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition.
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and
    (R) explains the reason sufficiently.
34. Which one of the following assumptions is not covered in the
     Walters Model of the dividend policy ?
    (A) All financing is done through retained earnings.
    (B) Firm’s business risk does not change due to additional investments.
    (C) The firm has an infinite life.
    (D) The key variables like EPS and DPS keep on changing.
35. Which one of the following emphasizes the qualitative aspects of working capital management ?
    (A) Gross working capital
    (B) Quick working capital
    (C) Net working capital
    (D) None of the above 
36. Which of the following training methods exposes the newly recruited
      employee to the various business functions, divisions and departments ?
    (A) Orientation
    (B) Vestibule Training
    (C) Transition Analysis
    (D) Role playing
37. Match the names of the Authors given below with the motivational
      theories they are associated with
                     List-I                             List-II
    1. Herzberg                            a. ERG Theory
    2. McGregor                          b. Three-need theory
    3. Alderfer                             c. Theory X and Theory Y
    4. David McClelland              d. Two-factor theory
    Codes :
            1   2   3   4
    (A)   a   b   c   d
    (B)   d   c   b   a
    (C)   b   a  d    c
    (D)   d   c  a    b
38. Who was closely associated with industrial relations in India ?
    (A) B. Kurien
    (B) Gadgil
    (C) V.V. Giri
    (D) Vinoba Bhave
39. Under the Trade Union Act 1926, how many minimum number of members are required
      for a trade union to be registered ?
    (A) 5                    (B) 7
    (C) 9                    (D) 11
40. The idea that a manager tends to be promoted to a level of his incompetence is
       referred to as
    (A) the advancement principle
    (B) the Paul principle
    (C) the Peter principle
    (D) the job design principle
41. Which of the following committees is intended to review the working of
       the monitory system in India ?
    (A) Narasimham Committee
    (B) Tandon Committee
    (C) Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee
    (D) Deheja Committee
42. Match the items of List-I with those in List-II and select the correct answer.
           List-I                                  List-II
    (a) Bank Rate Policy          1. Involving the shortening of the currency of bills
                                                 eligible for rediscount.
    (b) Credit Rationing            2. Involving the Purchase and sale of securities in
                                                  the open market.
    (c) Variable Reserve
          System                         3. Involving the alteration of discount rate.
    (d) Open Market
         Operations                    4. Involving the variation of the minimum reserves
    Codes :
           (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)   1   4   2   3
    (B)   2   1   3   4
    (C)   4   2   1   3
    (D)   3   1   4   2
43. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct
      answer using the codes given below the lists.
          List-I                                 List-II
    (a) Rural Industries
         Programme                   (i) Meant for various target groups like
                                                  Rural youth, Ex-serviceman, women and
                                                  Scheduled Castes/Tribes
    (b) Mahila Vikas Nidhi
         Scheme                         (ii) Aim at ensuring flow of credit to
                                                   the disadvantaged sections of the society.
    (c) Entrepreneurship
         Programme                   (iii) Commercial exploitation of local resources.
    (d) Micro Credit
         Scheme                         (iv) Provides assistance to voluntary
                                                    organizations for the benefit of women.
    Codes :
          (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
    (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
    (D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
44. According to the FDI Policy of the Government of India (2012), the FDI
      in banks is limited to
    (A) 20% in Nationalised Banks and 74% in Private Sector Banks.
    (B) 20% in Nationalised Banks and 49% in Private Sector Banks.
    (C) 16% in Nationalised Banks and 74% in Private Sector Banks.
    (D) 49% in Nationalised Banks and 51% in Private Sector Banks.
45. According to the recent guidelines (2013) of the Reserve Bank of India
      the Private Sector Banks are required to have a minimum paid up equity capital of
    (A) ` 300 crores           (B) ` 200 crores
    (C) ` 400 crores           (D) ` 500 crores
46. International trade theory which provides that capital intensive country should export
       labour intensive goods and import capital goods is referred to as
    (A) Leontief Paradox
    (B) Heckscher-Ohlin Theory
    (C) Mercantilism Theory
    (D) Theory of Comparative Advantage
47. Which of the following is not a form of economic integration in the
      context of intra-regional trade ?
    (A) Customs Union
    (B) European Union
    (C) Economic Union
    (D) African Union
48. ‘Crawling Peg System’ means
    (A) Fixed Exchange Rate System.
    (B) Floating Exchange Rate System.
    (C) Hybrid of Fixed and Floating Exchange System.
    (D) None of the above.
49. From the following modes of international business, identify the mode which involves
      strategic alliance
    (A) Franchising
    (B) Leasing
    (C) Turnkey Project
    (D) Joint venture
50. Which of the following expressions amount to the import restriction measures ?
    (i) Currency control
    (ii) Establishment of EPZs
    (iii) Tariff cuts
    (iv) Imposition of tariffs
    (v) Imposition of non-tariff barriers
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
    (B) (i), (iv) and (v)
    (C) (iii), (iv) and (v)
    (D) (ii), (iii) and (v)
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